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In the November 23rd issue of the New Yorker "facade" is spelled "façade" with a cedilla in The Skyline article. Why would they do that? Do they think we're going to pronounce "facade" as "fakade"? I don't think so. In fact, I'll bet 99% of the people who read the New Yorker would pronounce "facade" correctly without the help of a cedilla.
Could it be pure and unadulterated pretentiousness. I think so.
If they're going to spell "façade" with a cedilla, why don't they also spell "façiliate" "façetious" "façets" with a cedilla. For that matter why don't they spell çedilla with a cedilla?
The problem with spelling "facade" as "façade" is that it takes the reader's attention away from the meaning of the sentence and focuses it on the word. It has the same effect as a misspelled word.
… why don't they also spell "façiliate" "façetious" "façets" with a cedilla. For that matter why don't they spell çedilla with a cedilla?
I agree that the cedilla in facade is not needed in English, and that in this context it communicates more about the writer than about the pronunciation of the word. Having said that, I must comment that MS Word auto-corrects my typing of facade to façade and I would be unlikely even to notice the change. (N.B. MS Word in the person of the infernal Clippy has also complained about my typing of "doing good" meaning to do good deeds, pleading that I change it to "doing well". I coldly refused.)
I feel the same way about façade as about the use of the dieresis in cooperate (coöperate). We don't feel the need to use any diacritic to indicate that the sh in dishearten is not pronounced /ʃ/ as a digraph, but /s/ followed by /h/. Perhaps, if there were two words with the same spelling, but with differing pronunciation, the diacritic would be more helpful and, thus, more enduring
(c.f. recreation vs. re-creation).
In French, the cedilla is used only before the "hard" vowels (i.e. a, o, u) to distinguish the pronunciation as /s/, as opposed to the natural pronunciation as /k/. Before "soft" vowels, the c is always pronounced as /s/. (Consider how in English we use a fleeting k as in to politic, politicking, politicked; to picnic, picnicking, picnicked)
So your other examples are impossible. The cedilla would never be written in these orthographic contexts.
To illustrate, there are lots of words in French for which the presence and absence of the cedilla alternate based on the vowel that follows in a grammatical ending (e.g. the French verb recevoir – to receive:
(Present – Future – Imperfect)
je reçois recevrai recevais
tu reçois recevras recevais
il reçoit recevra recevait
nous recevons recevrons recevions
vous recevez recevrez receviez
ils reçoivent recevront recevaient
Present participle
recevant
Passé composé
Auxiliary verb avoir
Past participle reçu
(Subjunctive – Conditional – Passé simple – Imperfect subjunctive)
je reçoive recevrais reçus reçusse
tu reçoives recevrais reçus reçusses
il reçoive recevrait reçut reçût
nous recevions recevrions reçûmes reçussions
vous receviez recevriez reçûtes reçussiez
ils reçoivent recevraient reçurent reçussent
Imperative
(tu) reçois
(nous) recevons
(vous) recevez
It should be noted that the New Yorker is well-known for certain style preferences, including a dieresis in "coöperate."
Garry, many times people have revealed to me (or in writing I have read) that "facade" was one of those words they mispronounced when they were young readers who had never heard the word before. I did it myself!
Grant Barrett said:
It should be noted that the New Yorker is well-known for certain style preferences, including a dieresis in "coöperate."
Just last week, Alex Trebek misread a clue on "Jeopardy!" referring to "a coop for sheep or doves". His first attempt pronounced the word as "co-op".
Grant Barrett said:
It should be noted that the New Yorker is well-known for certain style preferences, including a dieresis in "coöperate."
Grant, does the New Yorker also specify dieresis in analogous situations? Or is "coöperate" unique to them? Or is it part of a select group? (e.g. coëd; coëxist; coöpt; coördinated; coïncidence; coïnsured; coägulate; coälition)
Personally, I would leave them all out. Does that make me reäctionary or antiïntellectual?
The Harvard Coop, while it is a co-op, is properly pronounced as rhyming with Hoop. I suspect it is an inside joke that serves the essential purpose of separating insiders from outsiders. I am an outsider.
A few comments:
1. I'm with Glenn. I would also leave them all out. I do think, Glenn, it may mark you as an anti-academic, but not as an anti intellectual; at least, in the European sense i.e., an intellectual is not defined by the job one holds but by the values he or she holds. I accept your explanation that it doesn't make sense to even consider using diacritical marks with words such as "facilitate" etc.
2. Grant, I didn't know the New Yorker was known for their style preferences. That surprises me. I've always thought of them as the model of Strunkiness.
3. Glenn, it's interesting that your Word program spells facade with a cedilla and my MS Word program on my Mac doesn't (BTW neither does this program give me red line prompts when I write facade without a cedilla). It raises an interesting question: to what extend are our black box computer programs determining our usage of language?
3. Grant, in my opinion, the fact that young people don't know how to pronounce facade when they encounter it in reading isn't a valid argument for the use of a cedilla by the New Yorker. First, very few young people read the New Yorker, second, if a young person knows what a cedilla is, he or she is likely to know how to pronounce facade without one; third, if they don't know what a cedilla is, it won't help them with their pronunciation any way.
As far as I can tell, no one has refuted my original premise, that spelling facade with a cedilla takes away from the meaning of the sentence and focuses it on the word. Or, as Glenn says, "on the writer."
Phonetically, a good case can be made for the use of the cedilla for the very reason Glenn brought up: it is counter-intuitive to enunciate "c" as a sibilant before a hard vowel. These kinds of determinations always become difficult when a foreign language term becomes so thoroughly embedded in English that it is effectively part of the English lexicon. But orthography should, to the greatest extent possible, also make sense to people who are second-language speakers or who are unfamiliar with the word in question. You'd be surprised how many people go to the health-food store and ask for "ah-KAI" juice, because they've seen it spelled rather "acai" than "açai."
I see your point about Acai. But English has never been known for phonetic spelling. And nobody has suggested that Caesar or Caesura might need a helpful cedilla for those who are unfamiliar with those words.
Besides, would someone unfamiliar with the word Facade know what a cedilla means for the pronunciation?
While we're discussing it, why don't we have phonetic spelling? It would make it easier for everyone to learn the language, save us billions of hours of time trying to figure out the proper way to pronounce words and help us speak more accurately. There are, according to Wikipedia, 42 phonemes. That means we would only need to add 16 letters. I had hopes that texting would usher in the era of phonetic spelling, but it's more lk a shrthnd. However, just the fact that millions of people are spelling words differently, may make it easier to introduce a new phonetic alphabet. When the generals were in power in Brazil, they established phonetic spelling for the Portuguese language. Maybe it's not possible in a democracy.
While we're at it, why don't we switch to the metric system?
You'd be surprised how many people go to the health-food store and ask for "ah-KAI" juice, because they've seen it spelled rather "acai" than "açai."
Since we're at it, it's açaÃ.
When the generals were in power in Brazil, they established phonetic spelling for the Portuguese language. Maybe it's not possible in a democracy.
What's this supposed to mean?
Jazyk said:
When the generals were in power in Brazil, they established phonetic spelling for the Portuguese language. Maybe it's not possible in a democracy.What's this supposed to mean?
One problem with establishing phonetic spelling -- or even a phonemic spelling, which is much more nearly standard -- is that someone has to establish the pronunciation standard for all speakers. When you look at English, such a process could hardly be a democratic one.
It is questionable if it could ever be a decision that does not suppress some large number of people's practices, whatever the language.
I wonder if Grant can supply a rough percentage of dictionary entries with one single pronunciation listed. My wager is that it would be a small number.
Here's something to dramatize / dramatise the point and, I hope, add some color / colour: when visiting London, I would hate to have to write to invite my friends confessing that I was about to "throw a potty." Honestly.
Even though I said that it was not possible to mandate phonetic spelling in a democracy, my son, who lives in Brazil, pointed out that several countries that speak Portuguese agreed to change the spelling of hundreds of words to conform to a universal standard. The countries who agreed to the standardized spelling were: Brazil, Portugal, Angola, Mozambique,East Timor, Cape Verde, Guinea-Bissau, and Sao Tome and Principe. The agreement will standardise spelling by "removing silent consonants in order for words to be spelt more phonetically, turning, for example "optimo" (great) into "otimo"."
Here is a 2008 reference to Portugal's decision http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/europe/7405985.stm
So I was wrong, as clearly some of these countries are democracies.
So if Portuguese speaking countries can move to a mor fonetic speling, wy can't we?
This afternoon, as we were waiting for a meeting to begin, I asked a colleague who was raised in Portugal about the Brazilian spelling. This mild, soft-spoken young lady began by likening the spelling differences to those between British and American English. Then, to my surprise, she flushed and picked up some steam, "but then somebody decided to change Iberian Portuguese spelling ... I don't understand how ... the original source and authority ... how dare anyone ... imagine!" The meeting leader had to verbally interrupt her after his many ahems failed to catch her attention.
I have some questions, but I'm afraid to reopen the topic. At this point, I'm not sure if she uses the revised spelling or not.
While we're discussing it, why don't we have phonetic spelling?
Because English spelling is etymology-driven. If we switched to phonetic spelling, our etymology would become a vastly more challenging field of study. Phonetically spelled languages are diction-driven: spelling is structured in a way that allows speakers to easily pronounce it correctly, and etymological discernibility is sacrificed as needed. In such languages, imported words get their spelling altered so as to allow native speakers to approximate the original spronunciation, e.g. the Spanish beisbol = baseball. If Spanish worked the way English does, the original "baseball" spelling would have been preserved. And they'd be calling it "basébal" (bah-SEH-bal).
I like diacritical marks. I think that in languages that have them (French, Spanish, Vietnamese, Scandinavian) it's probably easier to learn proper pronunciation than in languages that don't have them (German, Italian, English). Think how much easier English would be if,for example, long and short vowels were distinguished by the appropriate diacritical. Or spoken and silent consonants. Etc.
Garry Shirts said:
Even though I said that it was not possible to mandate phonetic spelling in a democracy, my son, who lives in Brazil, pointed out that several countries that speak Portuguese agreed to change the spelling of hundreds of words to conform to a universal standard. The countries who agreed to the standardized spelling were: Brazil, Portugal, Angola, Mozambique,East Timor, Cape Verde, Guinea-Bissau, and Sao Tome and Principe.
So I was wrong, as clearly some of these countries are democracies.
You weren't really wrong. Brazil is such a powerhouse and so extremely influential, that the smaller countries simply "followed the leader."
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