Notifications
Clear all

Underbelly

7 Posts
4 Users
0 Reactions
0 Views
Posts: 238
Topic starter
(@mrafee)
Member
Joined: 13 years ago

Which definition do you accept for the word?

1. A weak point of a country, society, etc.

2. Things that unpleasant about a place, country, etc. that are kept hidden

The first one is actually included in the second, but the problem is that it's INCLUDED in it; they are not the same, yet I've seen both.

6 Replies
Posts: 551
(@robert)
Member
Joined: 14 years ago

The metaphor for seaminess is outright unjust- classical arts can not have enough of the underbelly, not to mention where babies come from.  

The 2 senses are quite distinct, weakness and seaminess, though can be connected.

Reply
Posts: 238
Topic starter
(@mrafee)
Member
Joined: 13 years ago

Come to that, Happy New Year! 🙂

Reply
Posts: 0
Guest
(@Anonymous)
Joined: 1 second ago

This is my gut reaction. I did do a gut check, looking it up in dictionaries, but it is always a bit suspect when my visceral notions are confirmed by research.

When underbelly is used literally, (e.g. of an animal) it means a weak spot, or simply refers to that area of the anatomy. If it is used figuratively (e.g. of a people, a locale, a society, a corporation), it means something dirty and/or hidden.

I'm not sure why there would be this change in connotation when used figuratively. But underbelly used figuratively has strong pejorative tones. When under is not literal, it often conveys a negative nuance. perhaps the under- influences the figurative meaning.

If I want to use an anatomical metaphor for a weak spot, I would use Achilles' heel.

Reply
Posts: 0
Guest
(@Anonymous)
Joined: 1 second ago

Last night on the season 3 premier of Downton Abbey, I heard the use of underbelly in a figurative sense clearly with the primary meaning of a weak spot. It lacked the connotation of something sordid. In this case, the use is in reference to the Grantham family.

“She's like a homing pigeon,” bemoans Countess Grantham. “She finds our underbelly every time.”

Is that because it is British English? Because it is period language? Or because I am flat wrong?

Reply
Page 1 / 2