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Hello,
My linguist friend and I were discussing the expression “to pee sb's pants†the other day and the reason why we do not say we pee IN our pants. I asked some native English speakers which one they prefer and they said they say they pee their pants and not in their pants.
So, my question is if pee is not a transitive verb, how did it come to be used along with an object? In this case, the pants.
I'm looking forward to brand new episodes of the show.
Serkan YANIKOÄžLU
TURKEY
HoÅŸ geldiniz.
I recently posted a question regarding why the dictionary — several dictionaries — omitted an intransitive entry for the verb to distress, as in “Don't distress. It will end well.†The simple answer is that dictionaries focus on the most common words and definitions, and most productive uses. They don't cover all cases exhaustively.
In this case, the verb to pee is certainly being used transitively. And I agree that this transitive use is the more common in my region of the US. However, to pee in my pants would not be wrong or mean anything different.
Most uses would be intransitive. A doctor might have you “pee in(to) a cup.†You might “pee in a swimming pool.†etc. You have mentioned one common transitive use, with a second one being “to pee the bed.†It is possible that these two limited transitive uses are by analogy to the more euphemistic “to wet my pants†or “to wet the bed.â€
In some other cases, I could certainly imagine freely using pee transitively in a more directly transitive sense:
- I could smell that I was peeing the broccoli I ate for dinner.
- The frat boy peed the beer out in the alley behind the bar.
- I knew something was wrong when I started peeing blood.
So don't distress. I've remarked that dictionaries often omit these common but limited or restricted uses.
Martha Barnette
Grant Barrett
Grant Barrett
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